The scriptures also need to be understood in the context and culture of that time with what was happening in the church at Corinth, which was this: Women were previously not allowed to go into the inner court of the synagogue & not allowed to speak there, but only listen from the women’s section. The new freedoms for women in the early church were causing some problems. The women in that day were also for the most part uneducated & they were calling out to their husbands who sat on the other side of the church – asking questions about what was being said, and therefore being disorderly (v.33) This is way Paul was saying to the wives to ask their husbands (who were educated) at home.

Additionally – looking at I Corin 14:34-35 “women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the law says. If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home, for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church.”

v. 34 mentions “women” and v.35 “husbands” – in the original Greek there is not a word for husband or wife, only man and woman. v. 35 is referring to “husbands”, so v. 34 should have been translated as “wives” and not “women”, and so this was not pertaining to all women.

I Timothy 2:11-12 is a similar passage. The verses should have been translated as husband and wife, since the verses that immediately follow refer to Adam and Eve (husband & wife).

Signed, I can’t keep silent.

However,I don’t know of contrasting passages regarding homosexuality. But if anyone has any, please post. THat subject seems pretty clear from scripture. I would choose scripture over culture as my guide.

Maybe we need to follow Jesus’s example. Make it simple and instead of some obscure scripture that always seems to be taken out of context.

I only reason I think they do this is that it fits their thinking and how they have to have control over certain people like women.

Also Paul.